From: merlyn@geeks.org   
      
   "Juergen Kluth"  writes:   
   >> There's not much point in the ISP initiating the tunnel at their LAC   
   >> if there's not something at the remote network end to terminate that   
   >> tunnel...   
      
   >You are right , i forgot the LNS   
   >But again : If i would or would have to work with this config:   
   >-Must i ask in this case wether the ISP has a "LAC" capable device (normally   
   >i would assume a DSLAM or else for the endpoint of my dial up connection) ?   
   >to create a tunnel to "my" LNS ?   
      
   Not sure what the question is here. In this model of you connecting to   
   an ISP, and the ISP auto-tunneling your taffic, yes, the ISP would   
   have to have a RAS/BRAS device capable of being a L2TP LAC. That in   
   turn would identify your clients dialing in and auto-starting the   
   tunnel for that user to the LNS.   
      
   >-"My" LNS, must the this be connected by a fixed / leased line ? Or must it   
   >just typically have a constant IP address ?   
      
   It can be anywhere you have IP connectivity to. Policies of the   
   service the ISP offering you L2TP services may dictate what they   
   consider reasonable for connection back to your LNS. The L2TP   
   tunnelling all happens on the layer-3 IP layer though.   
      
   A fixed IP address is pretty much a given for the LNS end.   
      
   The other model you originally mentioned last in your first post with   
   an onsite CPE user device being a LAC to initiate the tunnel across   
   the Net doesn't require the ISPs involvement in any fashion what-so-ever.   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)