170d0070   
   XPost: uk.transport.air, alt.travel.uk.air   
   From: knightstemplar@budweiser.com   
      
    wrote in message   
   news:1f88a3f4-70d2-4749-b69b-8f55b34d989f@i28g2000yqa.googlegroups.com...   
   On Jul 11, 5:04 pm, "Buddenbrooks" wrote:   
   >semiretired wrote   
   > On Jul 11, 8:31 am, "Buddenbrooks" wrote:   
      
   >>I am not certain, one could argue that as nothing had occurred   
   >>to have value attached then VAT cannot apply.   
      
   >>This is arrant piffle.   
   >>Argue as you like,   
      
   >I took the bother of looking up the rule.   
   >As the hotel is not refunding it   
   >makes no difference but:   
   >If the booking was for 1 to 28 nights the hotel   
   >must forward the VAT in   
   >the normal way.   
   >If the booking was for longer than 28 days   
   >the hotel has no liability to   
   >pass any VAT on.   
      
   >Once again you are talking piffle.   
   >The rule says something totally   
   >different from what you claim.   
   R>ead it properly this time.1   
      
      
   Piffle?   
      
    made only two statements:   
      
   a. VAT is paid on up to 28 days   
   b VAT is not paid over 28 days.   
      
   As you said piffle, rather than total piffle I assume you are not suggesting   
   I am wrong on both counts.   
      
   So you disagree with case a or b. ?   
      
   However I have read the rule and both are correct..   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)   
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