XPost: rec.arts.books.tolkien
From: jon.lennart.beck.its.my.name@mail.its.in.danmark
"chrishoelscher" skrev i meddelelsen
news:d_6dnT6CVvBAyNjNnZ2dnUVZ_rednZ2d@insightbb.com...
> is there any evidence that Sauronwas aware of anyone who used the Ruling
> Ring without knowing what it was? be it Smeagol/Bilbo/Frodo - Galadriel
> was aware that Frodo had knowingly used the ring 3 times - but was that
> because she was wearing one of the three?
I know of no such evidence either way. The only thing we know with
reasonable certainty is that if it had been used (even just worn on a
finger) in Mordor, Sauron would have known it at once. He did know at once
when Frodo claimed it in Sammath Naur. But he did not notice when Sam used
it inadvertently in the tower of Cirith Ungol.
Galadriel wore one of the Three, that were bound to the One. If Sauron
had recovered the Ruling Ring, he would swiftly or immediately have used it
to dominate the bearers of the Three. It stands to reason that they would
be able to notice whenever the One was used, so I suppose Galadriel knew for
precisely that reason. Gandalf and Elrond presumably also knew, but didn't
bring it up.
> did the 16 have any other effect on mortals other than temporary
> invisibility (and eventual permanent wraithdom) for humans,
> and lust for gold for dwarves?
On Men they had the power of increasing the innate power of the persons
wielding them, or the power of command, or both. This is fairly certain.
It was how Sauron lured the nine Ringwraiths-to-be in the first place. The
wraithdom and the dominance of the One were trojans that he had added as his
main purpose with them.
> would the nine have had any greater powers or less vulnerable had they
> been allowed to keep their rings after they became wraiths?
> or did the rings actually no longer serve any purpose being with them?
> even so (and I think this has been discussed before) - were
> the rings then remotely linked to the nine? could they have been
> redistributed to others with the intent of creating more wraiths? if
> there was in fact no differences in the 16 - the remaining 3<4?>
> previously given to dwarves and re-captured by Sauron could have
> been redistributed? a ring (other than the RulingRing) does not appear to
> be bonded with a wearer - the three were passed around
> - but perhaps this is not true for the 16?
Sauron let the Nazgūl keep their rings while he held the One. They
became slaves to their rings, and those rings were bound to the Ruling Ring.
When Sauron lost that, he no longer had any direct chokehold on the Nazgūl.
So he took back the Nine. Even without being in physical possession, the
Nazgūl were still slaves to their rings, which Sauron now held directly.
He could not use other rings to enslave more people, not without the One.
Otherwise he would presumably have distributed the Dwarf-rings that he
recovered to others - to Men this time, because his trojans didn't work so
well with the Dwarven OS...
I have not seen described how Sauron managed to take back the Nine. When
in the presence of a Nazgūl he was powerful enough to take it, whether the
Nazgūl liked it or not. I do not know if he tricked them into his presence,
or managed to command them from afar. Could a ringwraith have realized that
it was free once Sauron no longer held the One, and set up shop somewhere
else?
The Three were passed around. But they were not used to enslave the
wielder. The Nine were so used, and that is presumably why they could not
be reused to recruit a whole army of Nazgūl. The Seven seem to have passed
from dwarf to dwarf, until Sauron took them back or dragons destroyed them.
Durin's ring did.
Cuervo.
--- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
* Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)
|
