XPost: rec.arts.books.tolkien   
   From: mr@sandman.net   
      
   In article ,   
    Troels Forchhammer  wrote:   
      
   > > All that said, I'm not claiming that Saruman had any "right" to   
   > > use it either way, just that the written law is ancient, and while   
   > > "law" in Middle Earth seems more constant than in the modern   
   > > world, surely ancient means something.   
   >   
   > I think we are not even speaking about written law -- this 'law'   
   > seems to have been inherent in the stones themselves, not just   
   > something that had been written down -- these are somehow magically   
   > enforced rules about who the 'rightful' king and delegate might be   
   > (it would doubtlessly have been easier for the Egyptians if   
   > Nefertiti's bust had appeared like a lump of common rock to all by   
   > its rightful owner . . .).   
      
   Which kind of suggests that only the ones given "authority" can see   
   and use the stones properly, which we know isn't true. Anyone can walk   
   up to and use the stone (or see Nefertiti's bust as it is) at any   
   point. There is no force, magical or not, preventing a non-authorized   
   person from using it.   
      
   >    
   >   
   > With all the above in mind, I do think that Tolkien's explanation   
   > makes good sense within the context of his Middle-earth.   
      
   Yes, I have no problem with the concepts of right and "law" within the   
   confines of Middle Earth and the fairytale of the books. The problem   
   arises when common logic and parameters of the real world is applied,   
   I suppose. :)   
      
   Some questions shouldn't be asked :-D   
      
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