XPost: rec.arts.books.tolkien   
   From: Troels@ThisIsFake.invalid   
      
   In message    
   Igenlode Wordsmith    
   spoke these staves:   
   >   
   > Troels Forchhammer  wrote in message   
   >    
   >>   
      
      
      
   >> Tolkien's very explicit statement that Saruman "had himself   
   >> no /right/ to the Orthanc-stone" (note 14 to the UT essay,   
   >> emphasis original).   
   >   
   > Locating the actual essay, I observe that the emphasised word in   
   > question actually occurs outside the end of the quoted "unplaced   
   > marginal note" - it may thus be Christopher Tolkien's editorial   
   > comment, rather than his father's :-)   
      
   You're right -- I hadn't noticed that, sorry. Well, probably Tolkien   
   the son, then, rather than the father.   
      
   The statement in the note can still only refer to the right of use --   
   the deputed authority to use the stone. This is the only right that   
   Saruman could have -- the ownership is inalienable to the Elendil and   
   his heirs, and so ownership is never in question.   
      
   I see no reason to doubt Christopher (the main argument in the essay is   
   that Denethor managed better than Saruman because Denethor had   
   inherited the deputed right to use the stone -- it then follows that   
   Saruman had no such right), so it doesn't really change anything for me   
   )   
      
   --   
   Troels Forchhammer   
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