From: mr@sandman.net
In article ,
Paul S. Person wrote:
> >Maybe we're reading it differently?
> >
> >Gimli thinks the S might be for Sauron.
> >Legolas claims that's impossible, because Sauron doesn't use Elf-runes.
> >
> >Then Aragorn agrees with Legolas claims, and adds that he doesn't use
> >his right name anyway.
> >
> >The "neither" signifies agreement with the previous claim, so either
> >Aragorn is agreeing with Legolas and adding another reason why the S
> >can't stand for Sauron - OR, he is agreeing with Legolas while adding
> >irrelevant information (i.e. he doesn't use his right name, which is
> >George). Right?
> >
> >I mean, either Aragorn is reinforcing Legolas claim or he is agreeing
> >with it while at the same time adding information that has no relation
> >to the runes they are currently looking at. :)
>
> Unless, of course, Sauron's right name is, say, "Sandman".
>
> I mean, "Sauron" isn't the /only/ name in the world to start with "S".
True, but then Aragorn is just being an asshole, right?
> But, actually, I think Sauron's right name is "Sauron", but point out
> the possibility that the name /translated as/ "Mouth of Sauron" did
> not incorporate "Sauron" in itself in the Black Speech. Perhaps it was
> just "The Mouth" in the Black Speech, but the translation "Mouth of
> Sauron" is used for the English reader's benefit.
Isn't that just a new can of worms? I mean, doesn't that open up a whole
new level of wiggle room in tons of names and places? Gandalf the Grey
may not be what they called him, maybe only "The Gandalf", and his color
was a benefit for us English readers?
Occam's razor applies here. It's an inconsistency in the works from
Tholen which he never found out or bothered to correct.
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