XPost: rec.arts.books.tolkien   
   From: mr@sandman.net   
      
   In article , Clams Canino wrote:   
      
   > "Wayne Brown" wrote in message   
   > news:m1jf6i$nut$1@dont-   
      
   > > Wayne Brown:   
   > > I didn't say he was asked about a direct quotation, I said he was   
   > > asked about the source of his information for a statement he made.   
   > > A simple answer something like, "That's the way I see it, and I   
   > > don't remember whether I saw it spelled out exactly that way in   
   > > either the books or the films" would have sufficed, without   
   > > impugning the motives of the person who asked the question.   
   >   
   > Unfortunately you can't really source your own formed *opinion* -   
   > and that's all he actually expressed. It was Paul that said that his   
   > opinion sounded like a movie quote (it wasn't) and opened a can of   
   > worms. I think we (mostly) all feel that men are easily corrupted in   
   > Tolkiens world. At least much more so than elves.   
      
   > As Bill O'Meally just said: "I don't think it was because Men could   
   > or could not detect the danger. Tolkien makes it pretty clear that   
   > Men were more easily corrupted than Elves."   
      
   > Paul's original quote that I took issue with: "Is this "men who are   
   > so easily corrupted?" from the book? Or is it just an abomination of   
   > PJ & accomplices? I ask because it sounds an awful lot like a quote   
   > from Galadriel's voiceover at the start of the first /LOTR/ movie."   
      
   > I'll note that "men who are so easily corrupted" was nothing like   
   > any quote from any movie and was just Sir Taxalot's opinion as   
   > expressed. There is (IMHO) a bit of an accusative tone to the above   
   > question as Paul phrased it. He also made it a *closed* question,   
   > either the book *or* P.Jackson and friends. Fact is, that it was   
   > neither. The question made the (incorrect) assumption that it was a   
   > quote of some sort and almost demanded to know "from which" it came.   
      
   The quoted phrase isn't from either the books or the movies, no, but the   
   question needn't be interpreted as such either.   
      
   Paul asked taxalot a question, about the source of his claim. The quote in   
   Paul's question is a quote from the preceeding paragraph to which he is   
   responding.   
      
   Taxalot said:   
      
     taxalot   
     10/08/2014 <5434c823$0$21640$426a74cc@news.free.fr>   
      
     "Or did he fear the ring, inherently evil object, and the men   
     who are so easily corrupted ? For all we know, Elrond might   
     have been afraid of a new dark power arising because of that   
     ring."   
      
   And Paul responded with:   
      
     Paul S. Person   
     10/08/2014    
      
     "Is this "men who are so easily corrupted?" from the book?"   
      
   As you can see, Paul is quoting taxalot, not a phrase from neither the book   
   nor the movies. It is my opinion that Paul isn't asking taxalot whether   
   those words are taken verbatim from either source, but rather whether the   
   idea contained within the quote is from either source, and using taxalot's   
   exact phrase to emphasize what part of the original claim he is   
   questioning.   
      
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