XPost: rec.arts.books.tolkien   
   From: schwarzb@delq.com   
      
   On Sat, 16 Nov 2019 14:40:47 +0000 (UTC), Julian Bradfield   
    wrote:   
      
   >On 2019-11-16, Bill O'Meally  wrote:   
   >> In a letter to Sir Stanley Unwin (_Letters_ #124), Tolkien states,   
   >> "Ridiculous and tiresome as you may think me, I want to publish them   
   >> both -- _The Silmarillion_ and _The Lord of the Rings_ -- in   
   >> conjunction or connexion. 'I want to' -- it would be wiser to say 'I   
   >> should like to'....   
   >>   
   >> In way of background, Tolkien had recently conversed with another   
   >> publisher, Milton Waldman, who offered to publish Silm along with LotR,   
   >> which Allen and Unwin were reluctant to do.   
   >>   
   >> Americans will use "I want to" and "I would like to" pretty much   
   >> interchangeably, but you seldom if ever hear an American say "I should   
   >> like to".   
   >>   
   >> What subtle difference was Tolkien getting at in his letter?   
   >   
   >The difference between "I want to" and "I should like to" is one of   
   >conditionality, diffidence, etc.   
   >   
   >"I want to" is a straightforward expression of wish.   
   >"I should like to" carries an implied condition..usually this is   
   >simply politeness, and the implied condition is "if you are in   
   >agreement with me". In this case, the implied condition may be more   
   >substantive, such as "if the publisher meets my demands".   
   >   
   >The use of "should" vs "would" is merely the conjugation:   
   >I/we shall/should, you/he/she/it/they will/would   
      
   I always thought "should" carried with it a sense of obligation while   
   "would" was more of a desire.   
      
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