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|    alt.religion    |    Nah-uh! My God is better than YOUR God!    |    192,254 messages    |
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|    Message 190,334 of 192,254    |
|    servant to and he    |
|    Re: (4) How can you explain this?    |
|    04 May 23 18:20:32    |
      XPost: alt.bible, alt.religion.christian.biblestudy, alt.religion.christianity              >>Friend james asks for help in bible translation:       >>       >>>>>Again explain 'God the Son's'comment here:       >>>>>       >>>>>Matthew 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no one, not even the       >>>>>angels of heaven, neither the Son, but the Father only.       >>       >>Correction, that is the kjv Mark version, here is the Matthew:       >>       >>24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of       >>heaven, but my Father only.       >>       >>I see the nwt ""corrected"" the difference and made both say the same       >>thing, how interesting, no?       >>       >>Before about 1950 the jw vatican used the kjv, how did they account for       >>the difference they read before they "fixed" it?       Note, the above was not answered. Could it be because it is another jw       vatican flip flop, one among many many?              >>       >>Let's rise above cherry picking single verses about "father/son". John in       >>3 places has Christ saying He was God       >       >I am aware of the false translation of John 1:1, but what are the       >other two places?              They are in addition to John 1:1.              Smile, whehn measured against 99 percent of greek scholars who say the jw       vatican John 1:1 "fix" of scripture is "full of it". The jw vatican       desperately prading the 1 percent who might agree is a dim light indeed,       no? The jw vatican having *no* scholars of greek makes them an ever       growing dimmer light, no?       >       >>, "the father and I are one",       >       >One what? One substance?       >They are one in agreements and morality issues etc.       >       Paul corrects, Col. 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead       bodily.       >       >> "if you       >>>see me you see the father"       >       >No way literally.No one may see God and live to tell about it.              Paul's correction applies once more "dwells the godhead bodily";, no?       Christ was the God/man.              and he said "I am"; the name given Moses for       >>the name of God.       >       How do we know that Christ was in fact claiming to be God in his       father/son nature? The jews who heard Him sought to kill Him, they said He       deserved death for the 'blasphemy", their word, for making himself God.       >       >>Paul speaks of this union of persons,ie. father/son       >>Colossians       >>2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.       >       >Another translation problem "Godhead".       >       >Colossians 2:10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all       >principality and power:              Friend james did we just catch you trying to pull a fast one? The word       "godhead" doesn't appear there. The words do not contridict what Paul just       wrote in the previous verse.              --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05        * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)    |
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