From: ram@zedat.fu-berlin.de   
      
   mm0fmf  wrote or quoted:   
   >If I take the source and clone the functions so they have the same   
   >prototypes but write them in assembler and have the same flow, is this a   
   >derivative work?  Or is the assembler version my work to licence how I   
   >feel?   
      
     "Writing them in assembler with the same flow" might be nothing   
     more than compiling and disassembling.   
      
     You also could ask an AI chatbot to write code for you.   
     AFAIK this can be used by you as if it was not coprighted.   
      
     I sometimes wonder about copright when you copy and then   
     change. Say, you copy this copyrighted program:   
      
   A = 2   
      
     . (It's too short to be copyrighted, but it serves here to   
     represent a much longer piece of code.) You make a little   
     change to it:   
      
   B = 2   
      
     . Later you change it into:   
      
   B = 7   
      
     . Now your program clearly has nothing to do with the original   
     anymore. You just used that to get started but then gradually   
     transformed it into your own code. So, is "B = 7" now free from   
     any copyright of the original author of "A = 2"? At what point   
     during the transition exactly did the copyright disappear?   
      
   --- SoupGate-DOS v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)