Hi,   
   Suppose a UK ISP has a cable from UK to the US, i.e. undersea, and they've   
   PAID for it. Now if a middle eastern person is trying to send email to an   
   American, then that data could go via the UK, right? i.e. it could use THAT UK   
   ISP'S CABLE!!....? Without    
   the middle eastern guy paying for it....? (he'll be paying HIS, middle   
   eastern, ISP of course...). How has this issue been settled? Since each ISP's   
   only income is from it's OWN customers.....?   
      
      
   THanks.   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)