From: barmar@alum.mit.edu   
      
   In article <33c6615a-f434-4d59-94dd-9cb85118fe52@googlegroups.com>,   
    bit-naughty@hotmail.com wrote:   
      
   > Hi,   
   > Suppose a UK ISP has a cable from UK to the US, i.e. undersea, and they've   
   > PAID for it. Now if a middle eastern person is trying to send email to an   
   > American, then that data could go via the UK, right? i.e. it could use THAT   
   > UK ISP'S CABLE!!....? Without the middle eastern guy paying for it....?   
   > (he'll be paying HIS, middle eastern, ISP of course...). How has this issue   
   > been settled? Since each ISP's only income is from it's OWN customers.....?   
      
   How is the data getting from the middle eastern ISP to the UK ISP in the   
   first place?   
      
   --   
   Barry Margolin   
   Arlington, MA   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)