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|    rec.games.trivia    |    Discussion about trivia games    |    32,813 messages    |
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|    Message 31,461 of 32,813    |
|    Erland Sommarskog to Dan Tilque    |
|    Re: Which countries has existed from 500    |
|    11 Jun 23 11:12:36    |
      From: esquel@sommarskog.se              Dan Tilque (dtilque@frontier.com) writes:       > My major problem with this question is what constitutes an interruption.       > After thinking about it, I concluded that occupation by a foreign power       > (e.g. Nazis, Napoleon) counted as an interruption. Hence I excluded       > Austria, Spain, Portugal, Denmark, Japan and others.              Good point. I had longer interruptions in mind, like Portugal actually       being part of Spain for 60 years.              Then again, for several of the examples you list, were there really       any interruptions at all? When it comes to Spain, my main concern       was when Spain was actually formed. De facto it was when Fernando       and Isabella got married. My recollection is that it was early 16th       century, but Wikipedia says "de jure 1715".              No matter what, I can't think of any true interruption. Yes, Napoleon       controlled Spain, but it was not annexed to France was it? Same       goes for German occupation of Denmark.              But true, I could have specified a limit like "interruption for more       than ten years" or so to avoid this kind of confusion.              But there are so many other problems with this question that it's       impossible to make it a strict trivia question, so it felt sort of       meaningless to make specifications.              --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05        * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)    |
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