From: danielpf@gmail.com   
      
   Le dimanche 20 août 2023 à 18:39:42 UTC+2, nob...@nowhere.invalid a écrit :   
   > Is there a simple way to show algebraically that:    
   >    
   > b^2 >= (a - c)^2 AND a^2 >= b^2    
   >    
   > implies:    
   >    
   > c^2 >= (a + b)^2 OR c^2 >= (a - b)^2    
   >    
   > where ">=" denotes "greater or equal"?    
   >    
   > Martin.   
      
   Taking a = 2, b = 1, and c = -2 gives a counterexample as the first   
   proposition is false, while the second true.    
      
      Dan   
      
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