XPost: sci.math   
   From: ivgroups@onlinehome.de   
      
   "Dale" wrote in news:lvkn85$eo9$1@speranza.aioe.org...   
   >> I am interested here in *symbolically* given functions, that means in   
   >> expressions of some Special functions (Named functions) (Wikipedia:   
   >> Special functions), e.g. the Elementary functions (Wikipedia: Elementary   
   >> function).   
   > try just (since it is a function);   
   > y = f(x)   
      
   >> When (under what conditions) is the inverse of a symbolically given   
   >> function also a function which can be represented symbolically?   
   > f−1(f(x)) = x = f(f−1(x))   (the f is followed by superscripted -1   
   meaning   
   > inverse, not exponentation)   
   > thar you go. all done.   
      
   You are right. Each inverse function can be represented symbolically if we   
   name the inverse. But is it possible to name all ever imaginable functions?   
   Please consider, I am interested in the *general* mathematical problem, not   
   only in the problem for only one given function! Therefore my hint to   
   Liouville's theorem!   
      
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