From: eaglesondouglas@gmail.com   
      
   [[Mod. note -- I apologise for the delay in processing this article,   
   which the author submitted on 2017-02-18.  -- jt]]   
      
   On Saturday, February 18, 2017 at 10:32:22 AM UTC-5, matmzc%ho..   
   @gtempaccount.com wrote:   
   > Hi all.  A massive spin one particle can have spin 1,0, or -1 in any   
   > spatial direction.  But for the massless photon spin in the direction of   
   > motion must be 1 or -1.  What is the easiest way to explain why 0 is   
   > excluded?  I am not asking for a proof, which can be found in texts on   
   > QFT.  But rather I would like a nice simple concept, if there is one,   
   > that makes it easy to understand.  So what is the simplest way to   
   > explain the gist of the matter?   
   >   
   > Mike   
      
   Spin is an observable momenta factor in general.   
   A simple state effect with no origin other than   
   a characteristic associative.   
      
   A zero means non-existence of this field.  Meaning   
   the relation of momenta has a cause.  With   
   light there is a lack of relative velocity differential   
   in one direction. The implication being relative   
   light velocity does not exist.   
      
   The odd implication appears the spin of   
   radiowaves.  I am not sure here, but suggest   
   the effect of local field.  Is there   
   a two state valuation set of spin due to transition of   
   local to nonlocal states?   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)