From: ralivingston1952@charter.net   
      
   On Thursday, March 2, 2017 at 10:03:00 PM UTC-6, Nicolaas Vroom wrote:   
   ...   
   > My whole point is:   
   > First you have to demonstrate the Bell inequality (is correct)   
   > This requires at least one experiment which is in agreement with   
   > the Bell inequality.   
   ...   
   > Nicolaas Vroom.   
      
   The Bell Inequality is a mathematical theorem.  You should read Bell's   
   paper on this.  There is no physical reasoning involved in its   
   derivation.   
      
   The APPLICATION of Bell's inequality to physics involves an   
   interpretation of the physics and an application of the inequality to   
   the physics.  By testing the physics against the inequality you test the   
   assumptions of that interpretation and your understanding of the   
   physics.  Bell's Inequality has been proven by mathematical theorem.   
   You do not need to, and cannot, prove or disprove it experimentally.   
      
   Rich L.   
      
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