From: seki.hajime01@gmail.com   
      
   In a Bell test experiment, a source produces a pair of particles, one   
   is sent to one location, and the other is sent to another location.   
   A measurement of particle spin/polarization is performed at a specific   
   angle at each location.   
      
   The following points are facts and assumptions concerning Bell's   
   problem presentation.   
      
   (1) In the vacuum space, zero-point oscillations of all wave-number   
   vectors with possible spin/polarization directions take place in each   
   quantum field.   
      
   (2) In the setting of Bell test experiments, zero-point oscillations   
   of other than the specific spin/polarization directions are assumed to   
   be suppressed significantly.   
      
   (3) A particle pair production is assumed to be induced by a zero-point   
   oscillation in a similar manner as in the case of stimulated emission   
   of a photon.   
      
   Then, the paradox concerning Bell's inequality can be considered to be   
   resolved.   
      
   Am I wrong?   
      
   SEKI   
      
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