From: sylvia@not.at.this.address   
      
   On 23/01/2018 8:56 AM, SEKI wrote:   
   > In a Bell test experiment, a source produces a pair of particles, one   
   > is sent to one location, and the other is sent to another location.   
   > A measurement of particle spin/polarization is performed at a specific   
   > angle at each location.   
   >   
   > The following points are facts and assumptions concerning Bell's   
   > problem presentation.   
   >   
   > (1) In the vacuum space, zero-point oscillations of all wave-number   
   > vectors with possible spin/polarization directions take place in each   
   > quantum field.   
   >   
   > (2) In the setting of Bell test experiments, zero-point oscillations   
   > of other than the specific spin/polarization directions are assumed to   
   > be suppressed significantly.   
   >   
   > (3) A particle pair production is assumed to be induced by a zero-point   
   > oscillation in a similar manner as in the case of stimulated emission   
   > of a photon.   
   >   
   > Then, the paradox concerning Bell's inequality can be considered to be   
   > resolved.   
   >   
   > Am I wrong?   
   >   
   > SEKI   
   >   
      
   Yes, you are wrong.   
      
   Bell's inequality has nothing to do with the specific details of   
   particle pairs. It is about measurements performed on entangled pairs of   
   particles. It shows that the observed measurements cannot be obtained if   
   the system being observed has no non-local interactions.   
      
   Sylvia.   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)