56ce14c1   
   From: seki.hajime01@gmail.com   
      
   On Friday, February 9, 2018 at 8:55:57 PM UTC+9, Mikko wrote:   
   > In article <1bbe6f3e-f569-402a-8b71-3fa54d39b584@googlegroups.com>,   
   >  SEKI wrote:   
   >    ...   
   > > Then, the paradox concerning Bell's inequality can be considered to be   
   > > resolved.   
   > >   
   > > Am I wrong?   
   >   
   > Yes, you are wrong. You have not posted any pointer to any resolution of   
   > Bell's inequality with your hypothesis.   
   >   
   > Bell's inequality is about expectations and expectations are defined in   
   > terms of probabilities, so any resolution would be a calculation of some   
   > probabilities or expectations.   
   >   
      
   Admittedly, I asked "Am I wrong?"   
   This question is, however, about assumptions (2) and (3).   
   If these assumptions are correct, Bell's arguments are to lose their   
   meaning completely.   
   In fact, I wrote "Maybe, it will make more sense for you to forget Bell"   
   in my 5th posting on this topic.   
      
   Thanks anyway.   
      
   SEKI   
      
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