From: helbig@asclothestro.multivax.de   
      
   In article , "Pettersen,Roald"   
    writes:   
      
   > > For the entire steep ascent, the cyclist A (in the absence of the air   
   > > resistance) maintains the comfortable CONSTANT speed of one meter per   
   > > second   
   > >   
   > > Instead the cyclist B maintains (in the same ascent) the CONSTANT speed   
   > > of 10 m/s (ten times the speed of A).   
   > >   
   > > Is the FORCE on the pedals of the cyclist B equal to or greater than   
   > > that of the cyclist A?   
   >   
   > In an ideal situation with no energy loss the force is the same.   
      
   They both have to overcome the same potential energy (mgh) so, all else   
   being equal---in particular, how fast they are pedalling---the force is   
   the same (see my longer followup to this, which has not yet appeared as   
   I write).   
      
   > The biggest difference is that B most work his body 10 times as fast as A.   
   >   
   > So you can say you don't need a stronger bike to go faster uphill,   
   > but you need a stronger/faster body to push the pedal faster.   
      
   B would have to pedal faster if he is in the same gear as A, but in that   
   case the force would be less.  So EITHER the force is the same, as is   
   the speed of pedalling, but B is in a higher gear, OR B is pedalling   
   faster because because he is in the same gear as A, but in that case the   
   force would be less.   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)