From: fortunati.luigi@gmail.com   
      
   Pettersen,Roald domenica 02/09/2018 alle ore 16:05:11 ha scritto:   
   >> For the entire steep ascent, the cyclist A (in the absence of the air   
   >> resistance) maintains the comfortable CONSTANT speed of one meter per   
   >> second   
   >>   
   >> Instead the cyclist B maintains (in the same ascent) the CONSTANT speed   
   >> of 10 m/s (ten times the speed of A).   
   >>   
   >> Is the FORCE on the pedals of the cyclist B equal to or greater than   
   >> that of the cyclist A?   
   >   
   > In an ideal situation with no energy loss the force is the same.   
   >   
   > Even with out any air resistance there is a small energy loss in the   
   > bike that is more than 10 times bigger for B than for A but not much.   
      
   During the ascent, the bicycle does not lose energy, but rather buys   
   it, in fact it increases its gravitational potential energy.   
      
   > The biggest difference is that B most work his body 10 times as fast as A.   
   >   
   > So you can say you don't need a stronger bike to go faster uphill,   
   > but you need a stronger/faster body to push the pedal faster.   
      
   It is obvious that the extra strength must put the body and not the   
   bike!   
      
   But why does cyclist B need a stronger body? Evidently it is because he   
   needs to exert a stronger push.   
      
   Otherwise the stronger body what it would serve, if not to exert   
   greater force?   
      
   Ultimately I'm interested only in understanding if the FORCE of the   
   foot on the pedal of B is greater (or not) than the force on the pedal   
   of the cyclist A.   
      
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