From: roald@nomail.invalid   
      
   >>> For the entire steep ascent, the cyclist A (in the absence of the air   
   >>> resistance) maintains the comfortable CONSTANT speed of one meter per   
   >>> second   
   >>>   
   >>> Instead the cyclist B maintains (in the same ascent) the CONSTANT speed   
   >>> of 10 m/s (ten times the speed of A).   
   >>>   
   >>> Is the FORCE on the pedals of the cyclist B equal to or greater than   
   >>> that of the cyclist A?   
   >>   
   >> In an ideal situation with no energy loss the force is the same.   
   >   
   > They both have to overcome the same potential energy (mgh) so, all else   
   > being equal---in particular, how fast they are pedalling---the force is   
   > the same (see my longer followup to this, which has not yet appeared as   
   > I write).   
   >   
   >> The biggest difference is that B most work his body 10 times as fast as A.   
   >>   
   >> So you can say you don't need a stronger bike to go faster uphill,   
   >> but you need a stronger/faster body to push the pedal faster.   
   >   
   > B would have to pedal faster if he is in the same gear as A, but in that   
   > case the force would be less.  So EITHER the force is the same, as is   
   > the speed of pedalling, but B is in a higher gear, OR B is pedalling   
   > faster because because he is in the same gear as A, but in that case the   
   > force would be less.   
      
   Let's forget about bikes, gears, air resistance and up and down.   
   If a body is pushed with greater force, then it will accelerate away.   
   But B is not accelerating. B is "only" going with a constant speed.   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)