Assume that an electron spin direction vector, e, is its 'hidden variable'.   
      
   When the electron spin direction is measured along direction vector a, does   
   the measurement outcome of + or -1 necessarily conform to the sign of the   
   dot product e.a?   
      
   I am asking because the direction of motion of a gyroscope under a force   
   is not in the direction of the force.  Any Bell simulation   
   (unsuccessful, of course) that I have previously done assumes that the   
   dot product e.a gives the measurement but if a gyroscopic effect could   
   override the dot product, to a small extent, that would be helpful in   
   perhaps explaining the breaking of Bell's Inequality.   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)