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|    sci.physics.research    |    Current physics research. (Moderated)    |    17,520 messages    |
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|    Message 16,684 of 17,520    |
|    Jos Bergervoet to ben6993@hotmail.com    |
|    Re: Measurement of electron spin directi    |
|    15 Mar 20 08:45:02    |
      From: jos.bergervoet@xs4all.nl              On 20/03/14 12:17 AM, ben6993@hotmail.com wrote:       > Assume that an electron spin direction vector, e, is its 'hidden variable'.       >       > When the electron spin direction is measured along direction vector a, does       > the measurement outcome of + or -1 necessarily conform to the sign of the       > dot product e.a?              No it does not. The chance[*] for measuring +1 is not zero if e.a < 0,       as you probably know very well.. but instead is:               (1 + e.a) / 2              > I am asking because the direction of motion of a gyroscope under a force       > is not in the direction of the force. Any Bell simulation       > (unsuccessful, of course) that I have previously done assumes that the       > dot product e.a gives the measurement but if a gyroscopic effect could       > override the dot product, to a small extent, that would be helpful in       > perhaps explaining the breaking of Bell's Inequality.              The breaking is perfectly explained already by QM, of course. But here       you want to do it, presumably, with some local microscopic description       of the system based on classical mechanics? For two entangled particles       that approach clearly breaks down, for zero particles it doesn't, so for       one particle you still may be able to do something! :-)              [*] If you still want to use the 'chance' concept, that is. If you do       not believe in collapse of the wave function then a 'density' concept,       for relative populations in a multiverse, would also be appropriate..              --       Jos              --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05        * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)    |
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