From: sylvia@email.invalid   
      
   On 14-Mar-20 10:17 am, ben6993@hotmail.com wrote:   
   > Assume that an electron spin direction vector, e, is its 'hidden variable'.   
   >   
   > When the electron spin direction is measured along direction vector a, does   
   > the measurement outcome of + or -1 necessarily conform to the sign of the   
   > dot product e.a?   
   >   
   > I am asking because the direction of motion of a gyroscope under a force   
   > is not in the direction of the force.  Any Bell simulation   
   > (unsuccessful, of course) that I have previously done assumes that the   
   > dot product e.a gives the measurement but if a gyroscopic effect could   
   > override the dot product, to a small extent, that would be helpful in   
   > perhaps explaining the breaking of Bell's Inequality.   
   >   
      
   If you apply a force to a gyroscope other than through its centre of   
   gravity, then you will be applying a torque. The angular momentum of a   
   gyroscope changes in the direction of the applied torque, so there is   
   nothing unusual about its behaviour. It looks odd only because humans   
   are not used to taking angular momentum into account.   
      
   Sylvia.   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
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