From: ben6993@hotmail.com
On Tuesday, November 1, 2022 at 8:15:51 AM UTC, Phillip Helbig (undress to
reply) wrote:
Phillip wrote that: "Two correlated vectors have opposite directions".
In classical calculations the exact correlation between any two vectors
is the cosine of the angle between the two vectors. In a Bell
experiment the angle (between the two detector settings) could be say 45
degrees leading to an expected classical correlation of -0.707. In a
large scale [hidden variables] computer simulation in 2017 based on one
million pairs of particles, I found the correlation to be
[-]0.499454164. So so why did I not obtain the larger correlation of
0.707 rather than the attenuated correlation of 0.5?
The attenuated correlation is caused by the quantised input values of +1
or -1 for the particle pairs orientations which are caused by the QM
nature of the particle measurements. Say the first particle pair had the
electron oriented along 5 degrees and the positron orient along 185
degrees. Then if Alice measures along her detector setting of zero
degrees, her measurement of the electron is exactly +1. But the exact
classical correlation would require an exact measurement or projection
of 5 degrees onto zero degrees. That is near 1.000 but not exactly so
and its exact value is a little less. Using the exact values in 2017
for a million particle pairs gave a correlation of 0.707258632 whereas
using the integer values had given 0.499454164. The exact values are
never known except in a simulation, so in the simulation trying to
reflect a real experiment by using integer measurements the correlation
is attenuated to 0.500.
The real experiments of 2015 however produce correlations significantly
greater than 0.5. That is the 'more' and it does look spooky. I have
my own answer which I have already written about here.
--- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
* Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)
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