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   Message 295,606 of 297,461   
   Hibou to All   
   Re: The 'have' of possession   
   02 May 24 13:50:36   
   
   XPost: alt.usage.english   
   From: vpaereru-unmonitored@yahoo.com.invalid   
      
   Le 30/04/2024 à 06:54, Peter Moylan a écrit :   
   >   
   > Almost all European languages have a "have" verb to indicate possession.   
   > (And has other uses, but that's a separate topic.) The Irish language is   
   > an exception, in that it lets a preposition do the job of a verb. The   
   > equivalent of English "I have an apple" is "Tá úll agam", literally "Is   
   > apple at me".   
      
   Cette pomme est à moi ?   
      
   > Scots Gaelic is similar (Tha ubhal agam), and so is Welsh (Mae gen i afal).   
   >   
   > And so is Russian. The Russian for "I have an apple" is "у меня есть   
   > яблоко", literally "at me is apple". Apart from word order, this is   
   > identical to the Irish example.   
   >   
   > This bothers me. What should (most) Celtic languages and (some) Slavic   
   > languages share a feature that is not found in the many languages that   
   > sit geographically between them? [...]   
      
   Perhaps the explanation is that the 'have' of possession is a capitalist   
   'have'.   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)   

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