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|    Hibou to All    |
|    Re: The 'have' of possession    |
|    02 May 24 13:50:36    |
      XPost: alt.usage.english       From: vpaereru-unmonitored@yahoo.com.invalid              Le 30/04/2024 à 06:54, Peter Moylan a écrit :       >       > Almost all European languages have a "have" verb to indicate possession.       > (And has other uses, but that's a separate topic.) The Irish language is       > an exception, in that it lets a preposition do the job of a verb. The       > equivalent of English "I have an apple" is "Tá úll agam", literally "Is       > apple at me".              Cette pomme est à moi ?              > Scots Gaelic is similar (Tha ubhal agam), and so is Welsh (Mae gen i afal).       >       > And so is Russian. The Russian for "I have an apple" is "у меня есть       > яблоко", literally "at me is apple". Apart from word order, this is       > identical to the Irish example.       >       > This bothers me. What should (most) Celtic languages and (some) Slavic       > languages share a feature that is not found in the many languages that       > sit geographically between them? [...]              Perhaps the explanation is that the 'have' of possession is a capitalist       'have'.              --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05        * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)    |
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