XPost: alt.usage.english, alt.english.usage
From: rh@rudhar.com
Wed, 2 Oct 2024 09:40:43 -0700: HenHanna
scribeva:
>On 9/30/2024 4:28 PM, HenHanna wrote:
>> Is [have] pronounced the same in [What do you have to say?] in the two
>> meanings?
>> -- meaning 1. (What must you say?)
>> -- meaning 2. (Have you anything to say?)
>>
>> _______________________
>>
>> Yes, the word "have" is pronounced the same in both meanings.
>>
>> In both "What do you have to say?" (meaning 1: What must you say?) and
>> "Have you anything to say?" (meaning 2: Have you anything to say?), the
>> word "have" is pronounced with the same vowel sound and stress. There is
>> no difference in pronunciation based on the intended meaning.
>
>
> The pronunciation of the word "have" varies depending on the
>context in which it is used.
>
>In the phrase "What do you have to say?", the pronunciation differs
>based on its implied meaning.
>
>When "have" indicates obligation, as in "What must you say?", it is
>pronounced with a voiceless /f/ sound, sounding like /hæf/.
>
>Conversely, when "have" denotes possession, as in "Have you anything to
>say?", it is pronounced as /hæv/.
Wouldn’t that more likely be a question of assimilation? In ,
/v/ is followed by /t/, so if assimilation takes place, that can
result in [ft].
In , /v/ is followed by /j/, both voiced, so assimilation to
anything voiceless is very unlikely.
English has less assimilation than many other languages. E.g. in
English , the does not turn into [p], but remains [b],
even though the is /s/ and [s]. But I think that in ,
assimilation does occur.
(Legend:
/phonemes/
[phones]
).
Cf. my shortish article https://rudhar.com/lingtics/sheleftu.htm .
--
Ruud Harmsen, https://rudhar.com
--- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
* Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)
|
