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|    sci.logic    |    Logic -- math, philosophy & computationa    |    262,912 messages    |
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|    Message 261,531 of 262,912    |
|    olcott to Alan Mackenzie    |
|    Re: A new foundation for correct reasoni    |
|    29 Nov 25 15:31:26    |
      [continued from previous message]              >>> You can't, since you lack the prerequisites to understand what       >>> constitutes a proof, and you lack the mathematical foundations to be       >>> able to construct one.       >       >> I don't give a rat's ass about your narrow minded learned by rote       >> definitions of a proof are.       >       > Neither do I. Not relevant, since I don't have any such learned by rote       > definitions of a proof.       >              I make sure to never have such.       I only know things on the basis that they are proven       to be inherently true.              >> The most generic form of a proof is essentially a semantic tautology.       >       > That's neither here not there, being too abstract to be of use.       >              It shows that natural preexisting order of all knowledge.              >>>>>> Within the giant semantic tautology of knowledge that       >>>>>> can be expressed in language everything is proven or       >>>>>> not an element of this body.       >       >>>>> Your scheme is limited indeed, in that it is not powerful enough to       >>>>> represent unprovable propositions.       >       >>>> In other words "the entire body of knowledge that       >>>> can be expressed in language" uses big words that       >>>> you cannot understand?       >       >>>> What is left out of:       >>>> "the entire body of knowledge that can be expressed in language" ?       >       >>> Arithmetic, for a start.       >       >> So you are trying to get away with saying that       >> knowledge of arithmetic cannot be expressed in language?       >       > I'm saying that any system of knowledge in which Gödel's Incompleteness       > Theorem doesn't apply is either inconsistent or incapable of doing       > arithmetic.       >              You are merely spouting off dogma with no understanding       of how I showed that this does not work.              He used Gödel numbers to hide the underlying       semantics in a language that could not directly       specify either provability or self-reference.              G says of itself that it is unprovable in F       G := (F ⊬ G)              >>> If that allegedly "entire body of knowledge"       >>> was capable of doing arithmetic, Gödel's Incompleteness Theorem would       >>> apply to it.       >       >> Arithmetic is merely insufficiently expressive, the body of knowledge       >> that can be expressed in language knows that.       >       > No, the body of knowledge that can be represented as you envisage       > wouldn't come up to the level of a stone-age person.       >              Since it directly formalizes the semantics of anything       that anyone can possible ever say how can this be true?              >>> That is a proof by contradiction that such a body of       >>> knowledge cannot exist.       >       >> Not at all.       >       > How can you say that? You don't understand proof by contradiction,       > remember?       >       >> Arithmetic is merely insufficiently expressive.       >> While you attempt to come up with counter-examples know       >> that dogma does not count.       >       > I don't know what you mean by dogma. I'm talking about proven results       > like 2 + 2 = 4. You're just ignorant, because you don't have the       > background needed to test these results, but you reject them just because       > you don't like them. You're an idiot, in other words.       >       >> A counter-example would be an element of knowledge       >> that can be expressed in language that:       >> (a) Cannot be expressed in language.       >> (b) Is not true. (All knowledge is true)       >       > That would indeed be a counter example. But given there is no suspicion       > that such a construct of knowledge could be complete, no proof, no       > attempt at a proof, there is nothing to give a counter example to.       >              G := (F ⊬ G) // G says of itself that it cannot be proved in F       Gödel says the same thing so verbosely that no one has any       idea that it all boils down to this: G := (F ⊬ G)              >> That is what I mean by counter-examples are       >> categorically impossible       >       > Your complete system of knowledge is categorically impossible.       >       >> --       >> Copyright 2025 Olcott       >       >> My 28 year goal has been to make       >> "true on the basis of meaning" computable.       >       >> This required establishing a new foundation       >> for correct reasoning.       >                     --       Copyright 2025 Olcott              My 28 year goal has been to make       "true on the basis of meaning" computable.              This required establishing a new foundation       for correct reasoning.              --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05        * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)    |
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