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|    sci.logic    |    Logic -- math, philosophy & computationa    |    262,912 messages    |
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|    Message 262,223 of 262,912    |
|    olcott to Tristan Wibberley    |
|    Re: have we been misusing incompleteness    |
|    29 Dec 25 12:52:34    |
      XPost: comp.theory       From: polcott333@gmail.com              On 12/29/2025 12:42 PM, Tristan Wibberley wrote:       > On 29/12/2025 13:37, Richard Damon wrote:       >       >> Incompleteness is a property of a given Formal System, it says that       >> there exist a statement that is true in that system, but can not be       >> proven in that system.       >>       >> Godel's proof build a meta-system that constructs a statement that       >> exists in the base system, and which is true in that base system, but       >> can not be proven in the base system, only the meta-system.       >       > What do you mean by "proven" here. Do you mean "derived" ? Normally we       > say a proposition is true in a system when we mean the proposition is a       > theorem of the system; it has a derivation in the system: a finite       > sequence of statements that each is derivable from the axioms and       > earlier statements in the sequence by application of a deductive rule of       > the system--where the deductive rules are transitive so that's also       > application of /some/ deductive rules--and which ends with the       > proposition that's being derived.       >       > If there is a derivation then it is provable in the base system, if       > there /isn't/ a derivation then it is /not/ true in that base system       > (which is different from saying its contrapositive is true in that base       > system).       >       >              Yes you are correct here. Even though it is dead-obvious       that you are correct everyone indoctrinated with Godel       1931 Incompleteness will disagree.              --       Copyright 2025 Olcott |
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