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|    sci.logic    |    Logic -- math, philosophy & computationa    |    262,912 messages    |
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|    Message 262,247 of 262,912    |
|    Mike Terry to joes    |
|    Re: have we been misusing incompleteness    |
|    30 Dec 25 18:18:06    |
      From: news.dead.person.stones@darjeeling.plus.com              On 30/12/2025 09:47, joes wrote:       > Am Mon, 29 Dec 2025 23:26:15 -0800 schrieb dart200:       >> On 12/29/25 5:37 AM, Richard Damon wrote:       >       >>> I believe there is then another proof that shows that because there is       >>> no decider that gets all inputs correctly, you can show that there must       >>> be some program that no known to be corret partial decider gets right,       >>> in other words, a program that we can not know its halting status, as       >>> we can not prove it will not halt.       > I believe not, but I would be delighted to see.       >              Problem: what is a "known to be correct" decider? And what if we don't know       a decider is correct       today, but tomorrow we prove that it is in fact correct?              Then Richard suggests that is equivalent to a program that we *can not* know       its halting status, but       these two ideas are not the same - the first is a point-in-time statement, and       the second tries to       be absolute. Possibly the first statement was also intended to be absolute.              I don't see how we can make absolute statements about what is "knowable". It       doesn't seem to be a       mathematical idea. It's like the G sentence in a formal theory like PA       (Peano's axioms of       arithmetic) - PA proves neither G nor ¬G, but that doesn't imply the truth of       G is "unknowable" in       any absolute sense. In fact, most mathematicians would take the natural       numbers as being a model of       PA, in which case we can see that G must be true. To say that some arithmetic       statement is       unknowable in some absolute sense, surely we would need to define /exactly/       what it is possible to       "know" and why. Otherwise who is to say that we will not have some new       insight into the nature of       the natural numbers, which renders new arithmetic statements provable? (i.e.       we accept new axioms       into our existing framework, which lead to resolving problems we were       previously stuck on.)              If the claim is just that one fixed formal system cannot prove h       lting/nonhalting for all TMs, that       seems clear enough (i.e. that statement being correct). E.g. given a TM M, we       could form the       statements in our formal system that M halts, and that M never halts. If our       formal system can       prove one or the other of these, we can write a program to enumerate all       theorems of the system       until we hit a proof for M halting, or M never halting. We can argue that we       have now created a       universal halt decider, which is a contradiction etc.. (So there must be some       machine M our system       cannot decide...) Well, assuming we have confidence in the soundness of our       formal system I guess...              Anyway, we have entered a /much/ trickier domain, since we're no longer just       interested in halt       deciders, but /provability/ of halting, and even what it means for something       to be ultimately       "knowable" by the human mind which is not some /fixed/ formal system. (Hehe,       unless you want to       claim the whole universe is one giant TM computation perhaps!)                     Mike.              --- SoupGate-DOS v1.05        * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)    |
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