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|    sci.logic    |    Logic -- math, philosophy & computationa    |    262,912 messages    |
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|    Message 262,300 of 262,912    |
|    olcott to Tristan Wibberley    |
|    Re: have we been misusing incompleteness    |
|    01 Jan 26 20:07:58    |
      XPost: comp.theory, sci.math       From: polcott333@gmail.com              On 1/1/2026 4:12 PM, Tristan Wibberley wrote:       > On 31/12/2025 23:27, Richard Damon wrote:       >       >> So, how do you think you can prove it in F?       >       > What does "F" refer to?       >              F ⊢ G_F ↔ ¬Prov_F(⌜G_F⌝)       F proves that: G_F is equivalent to G_F is not provable in F       https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom              ∃G ∈ WFF(F) (G ↔ (F ⊬ G))       There exists a G in F that is logically       equivalent to its own unprovability in F              ∃G ∈ WFF(F) (G := (F ⊬ G))       There exists a G in F that asserts its own unprovability in F              The proof of G in F would seem to require a sequence       of inference steps in F that prove that they themselves       do not exist.                     --       Copyright 2025 Olcott |
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