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|    sci.logic    |    Logic -- math, philosophy & computationa    |    262,912 messages    |
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|    Message 262,302 of 262,912    |
|    =?UTF-8?B?QW5kcsOpIEcuIElzYWFr?= to Richard Damon    |
|    Re: have we been misusing incompleteness    |
|    01 Jan 26 19:45:55    |
      XPost: comp.theory, sci.math       From: agisaak@gm.invalid              On 2026-01-01 16:48, Richard Damon wrote:       > On 1/1/26 6:13 PM, Tristan Wibberley wrote:       >> On 01/01/2026 22:40, Richard Damon wrote:       >>       >>> But it IS a theorem of the base system, as it uses ONLY the mathematical       >>> operations definable in the base system. What makes you think it isn't a       >>> Theorem in the base system.       >>       >> It has no derivation in the base system, if it had you wouldn't think       >> the base system were incomplete.       >>       >       > It has no PROOF in the base system.              Which means it is not a theorem of the base system. A theorem is a       statement which can be proven in a particular system.              > The statement is surely a statement in the base system.              Sure, but being a statement and being a theorem are two different things.              > It is shown to be true there, by a proof in the meta-system.              It is shown to be true in the base system, but only within the       metasystem. Within the base system it cannot be so shown, which       precludes it from being a theorem. That's the entire point of Gödel:       truth and theoremhood cannot be made to coincide except in very trivial       systems.              > I think you are confused about what you talk about.              I think you are both somewhat confused here.              AndrĂ©              --       To email remove 'invalid' & replace 'gm' with well known Google mail       service.              --- SoupGate-DOS v1.05        * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)    |
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