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|    Message 262,305 of 262,912    |
|    olcott to Richard Damon    |
|    Re: have we been misusing incompleteness    |
|    01 Jan 26 22:17:17    |
      XPost: comp.theory, sci.math       From: polcott333@gmail.com              On 1/1/2026 8:52 PM, Richard Damon wrote:       > On 1/1/26 9:38 PM, olcott wrote:       >> On 1/1/2026 8:25 PM, Richard Damon wrote:       >>> On 1/1/26 9:07 PM, olcott wrote:       >>>> On 1/1/2026 4:12 PM, Tristan Wibberley wrote:       >>>>> On 31/12/2025 23:27, Richard Damon wrote:       >>>>>       >>>>>> So, how do you think you can prove it in F?       >>>>>       >>>>> What does "F" refer to?       >>>>>       >>>>       >>>> F ⊢ G_F ↔ ¬Prov_F(⌜G_F⌝)       >>>> F proves that: G_F is equivalent to G_F is not provable in F       >>>> https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/goedel-incompleteness/#FirIncTheCom       >>>>       >>>> ∃G ∈ WFF(F) (G ↔ (F ⊬ G))       >>>> There exists a G in F that is logically       >>>> equivalent to its own unprovability in F       >>>>       >>>> ∃G ∈ WFF(F) (G := (F ⊬ G))       >>>> There exists a G in F that asserts its own unprovability in F       >>>>       >>>> The proof of G in F would seem to require a sequence       >>>> of inference steps in F that prove that they themselves       >>>> do not exist.       >>>>       >>>>       >>>       >>> But that isn't what G is in the proof, so you are just using a bad       >>> reference.       >>>       >>       >> That you do not know exactly how semantics works in       >> linguistics (making sure to ignore all context) is       >> not my mistake. The reason that Ludwig Wittgenstein       >> was never understood is that none of his detractors       >> understood how language itself really works. Not       >> knowing how language really works results in       >> undetected muddled thinking.       >       >       > No, YOU don't know how semantics work, or linqustics.       >>       >> ...We are therefore confronted with a proposition which       >> asserts its own unprovability. 15 … (Gödel 1931:40-41)       >       > Which is a statement in NATURAL LANGUAGE and you need to use Natural       > Language "rules" to interpret it.       >              I have taken "interpretation" as a twisted lie since       I was 14. Semantics of linguistics agrees.       It has always been the exact meanings that are specified.       it has never been the way that people twist this in       their mind.              a proposition which asserts its own unprovability              Does not mean a box of chocolates crushed on the floor.       It only means exactly one thing.              > And thus each word need to include its context.       >              Linguistic Semantics is required to exclude context.       Context is only included in linguistic pragmatics.       Your lack of knowledge never has been my mistake.              > The proposition exists in both the base system and the meta system.       >       > The assertion is just in the meta system, which understand the "hidden"       > meaning of the relationship that the statement is based on.       >       > The unprovabiliyt is just in the base system, which doesn't know this       > meaning.       >       > If you don't understand that you can't read a coded message without the       > code book, you are just stupid.       >       >>       >> G asserts its own unprovability.       >> Is what the above means semantically.       >>       >> The proof of G does semantically entail a sequence       >> of inference steps that prove that they themselves       >> do not exist.       >       > I two different systems.       >       > I guuess to you cats are dog, Calulus is just 1st grade arithmatic.       >       > Of course, it seems you can't understand either due to your stupidity.       >       >>       >>> I guess you are just showing that you think lying is correct logic.       >>       >>       >                     --       Copyright 2025 Olcott |
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