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|    Message 262,345 of 262,912    |
|    olcott to Richard Damon    |
|    Re: have we been misusing incompleteness    |
|    03 Jan 26 14:24:33    |
      XPost: comp.theory, sci.math       From: polcott333@gmail.com              On 1/3/2026 1:18 PM, Richard Damon wrote:       > On 1/3/26 11:47 AM, olcott wrote:       >> On 1/3/2026 10:32 AM, Mike Terry wrote:       >>> On 03/01/2026 03:30, Richard Damon wrote:       >>>> On 1/2/26 9:43 PM, André G. Isaak wrote:       >>>>> On 2026-01-01 20:09, Richard Damon wrote:       >>>>>> On 1/1/26 9:45 PM, André G. Isaak wrote:       >>>>>>> On 2026-01-01 16:48, Richard Damon wrote:       >>>>>>>> On 1/1/26 6:13 PM, Tristan Wibberley wrote:       >>>>>>>>> On 01/01/2026 22:40, Richard Damon wrote:       >>>>>>>>>       >>>>>>>>>> But it IS a theorem of the base system, as it uses ONLY the       >>>>>>>>>> mathematical       >>>>>>>>>> operations definable in the base system. What makes you think       >>>>>>>>>> it isn't a       >>>>>>>>>> Theorem in the base system.       >>>>>>>>>       >>>>>>>>> It has no derivation in the base system, if it had you wouldn't       >>>>>>>>> think       >>>>>>>>> the base system were incomplete.       >>>>>>>>>       >>>>>>>>       >>>>>>>> It has no PROOF in the base system.       >>>>>>>       >>>>>>> Which means it is not a theorem of the base system. A theorem is       >>>>>>> a statement which can be proven in a particular system.       >>>>>>       >>>>>> I guess it depends on your definition of a "Theorem".       >>>>>>       >>>>>> I am using the one that goes:       >>>>>>       >>>>>> "A Theorem is a statement that has been proven."       >>>>> >       >>>>>> note, no restriction that the proof was in the system the Theorem       >>>>>> is stated in, as long as the proof shows that it is actually True       >>>>>> in that system.       >>>>>       >>>>> A theorem is a statement that can be derived from the axioms of a       >>>>> particular system. It may be true in other systems, but it is only       >>>>> a theorem in systems in which it can be derived.       >>>>       >>>> Right, And the statement og Godel's G can be fully derived in the       >>>> base system, as it is purely a mathematical relationship using the       >>>> operations derivable in the system.       >>>       >>> Neither G nor ¬G has a derivation (in your terms, a "formal prooof")       >>> within the base system. That is what Godel proves, showing that the       >>> base system is incomplete.       >>>       >>> Mike.       >>>       >>>>       >>>> The implications of this statement can't be understood in the       >>>> system, but that isn't a requirment to be a Theorem.       >>>>       >>>>>       >>>>> An obvious example to illustrate this would be the fact that there       >>>>> are many theorems which can be derived in Euclidean geometry, but       >>>>> which are not theorems of various non-Euclidean geometries. That is       >>>>> to say, not only can they not be derived in those non-Euclidean       >>>>> geometries, but they can be shown to be *false* in those non-       >>>>> Euclidean geometries.       >>>>       >>>> Right, but G isn't like this.       >>>>       >>>>>       >>>>> Theoremhood is always tied to a particular formal system.       >>>>       >>>> Right, and the statement G needs nothing outside of the base system       >>>> to be created.       >>>>       >>>       >>> Sure. Just creating a statement doesn't mean the statement is a       >>> Theorem. Theorems need a "formal proof" (aka, a derivation) in that       >>> formal system. You have a basic misunderstanding somewhere!       >>>       >>> Mike.       >>>       >>>       >>>> What the meta-system provides is a "hidden" meaning to it.       >>>>       >>>>>       >>>>> André       >>>>>       >>>>       >>>>       >>>> It is sort of like given a binary of a program. The base computer       >>>> still considers it a program, even if the only way to figure out       >>>> what this program does is to run it with all sorts of input. So,       >>>> even without a C compiler, that binary is a program.       >>>>       >>>> WIth the C compiler and the C source code, we can understand much       >>>> better what the program does, and might not need to run it for a       >>>> bunch of inputs.       >>>>       >>>> The fact that program came out of the C compiler. doesn't make it       >>>> not a program for that processor.       >>>>       >>>> In the same way, G is a statement about using a specific set of       >>>> operations defined in the base system and whether any number given       >>>> will statisfy it. WIth just the assembly code, that may be       >>>> impossible to determine, as there are an infinite number of possible       >>>> inputs, so we can't test them all.       >>>>       >>>> But, that sequence of operations that G uses, came out of a       >>>> "compiler" in the meta-system, from which we can see that this set       >>>> of instructions are just a proof tester, to see if the number is a       >>>> representation of a give proof of the statement G in the base       >>>> system, where every proof in the base system produces a unique       >>>> number, and every number produces a possible proof in the base       >>>> system (though many are just non-sense)       >>>>       >>>> The fact we used a "compiler" to generate the statement doesn't make       >>>> it not a program in the base system, but does let us understand what       >>>> it does.       >>>       >>> You have used lots of words to explain, in effect, that the G       >>> statement is a statement of the base system. Well, most everybody       >>> here understands that perfectly well. (Not PO though...) Your       >>> analogy with programs has nothing more than       >>>       >>> program <---> statement in the language of the formal system       >>> (or what is often called a "sentence"       in that       >>> language)       >>>       >>> so program does not correlate with "Theorem" of the formal system.       >>> All the stuff about compilers helping us to understand the purpose of       >>> program is ok, but has nothing to do with whether the program       >>> corresponds to a Theorem.       >>>       >>> You seem to understand that Godel proves that the G statement does       >>> NOT have a "derivation" (aka "formal proof using the specified proof       >>> rules of the base system") in the base system. I.e. it is       >>> specifically NOT a "Theorem" of the base system, in the sense that       >>> people use that word /in the realm of formal logic/.       >>>       >>>       >>> Mike.       >>>       >>       >> ...We are therefore confronted with a proposition which       >> asserts its own unprovability. 15 … (Gödel 1931:40-41)       >       > WHich you don't seem to understand is the INTERPREATION of the statement       > made in the meta system about the statement.       >              That is not what the sentence literally says.              >>       >> Gödel, Kurt 1931.       >> On Formally Undecidable Propositions of       >> Principia Mathematica And Related Systems       >>       >> A proposition which asserts its own unprovability       >> literally means: G asserts its own unprovability.       >       > Nope. Just that it uses language too complicated for you to understand.       >       > G, itself, asserts no such thing.       >       >>       >> This semantically entails that:       >> A proof of G requires a sequence of inference       >> steps that prove that they themselves do not exist.       >       > Right, so no such prove IN THE BASE SYSTEM can exist.       >       >>              [continued in next message]              --- SoupGate-DOS v1.05        * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)    |
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