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   Message 262,402 of 262,912   
   olcott to Mike Terry   
   Re: have we been misusing incompleteness   
   05 Jan 26 12:01:43   
   
   XPost: comp.theory, sci.math   
   From: polcott333@gmail.com   
      
   On 1/5/2026 11:04 AM, Mike Terry wrote:   
   > On 04/01/2026 22:13, Jeff Barnett wrote:   
   >> On 1/4/2026 11:55 AM, Mike Terry wrote:   
   >>> On 02/01/2026 17:54, Richard Damon wrote:   
   >>>> On 1/2/26 12:24 PM, Mike Terry wrote:   
   >>>>> On 02/01/2026 15:25, Richard Damon wrote:   
   >>>>>> On 1/2/26 1:14 AM, Tristan Wibberley wrote:   
   >>>>>>> On 02/01/2026 04:45, Richard Damon wrote:   
   >>        
   >>>>> Similarly, the word "proof" can be informal (simply an argument   
   >>>>> that convinces people of the truth of a statement), or refer to the   
   >>>>> "proof calculus" of the formal system being discussed. Most authors   
   >>>>> I've come across seem to use "proof" more or less informally and   
   >>>>> for clarity choose another word for whatever sequence of syntactic   
   >>>>> "proof steps" the formal system specifies. Often "derivation" is   
   >>>>> used, and that seems intuitive to me, so I try to always use that   
   >>>>> term here, and using "proof" for more general mathematial   
   >>>>> arguments, e.g. proving that the G statement is "true" using some   
   >>>>> meta-theory.   
   >>>>   
   >>>> The issue is that "derivation" doesn't actually imply a finiteness,   
   >>>> which is a necessity of "proof".   
   >>>   
   >>> Where do you get that idea?  Are you thinking "derivation" is just an   
   >>> informal word?  I'm using it in the technical sense previously   
   >>> explained.   
   >>>   
   >>> Within a formal system there will be a set of rules which define what   
   >>> a valid "derivation" looks like.  These would ensure that such   
   >>> derivations are finite.  (I'm sure someone at some time has made a   
   >>> special study of "infinite proofs", but that is off the beaten   
   >>> track.)  As explained in my previous post, I'm using "derivation" as   
   >>> the technical term for whatever passes as a "formal proof conforming   
   >>> to the requirements of the proof calculus of the system".  This is so   
   >>> that the idea does not get muddled with your more general kind of   
   >>> proof = "convincing argument in some meta-theory".        
   >>   
   >> There are examples of the following situations that I remember from   
   >> discussions with logicians circa. 60 years ago. Assume we have a   
   >> simple axiomatic system that allows us to express some facts about   
   >> what we believe to be natural numbers. Call the objects in a model of   
   >> the system N and we wish to prove, in our little system, that for all   
   >> n in N p(n). Now it turns out that for any n in N we can write a   
   >> simple finite proof of p(n) but are (provably in a larger or meta   
   >> system) not able to prove the universally quantified statement in the   
   >> little system.   
   >   
   > Yes, that can happen.  It's known as ω-incompleteness.  That's where we   
   > have   
   >     ⊢ p(1)   
   >     ⊢ p(2)   
   >     ⊢ p(3)   
   >     ...   
   > but not   
   >     ⊢ ∀n p(n)   
   >   
   > There is a related phenomenon which is much more severe, which we have   
   >     ⊢ p(1)   
   >     ⊢ p(2)   
   >     ⊢ p(3)   
   >     ...   
   > and additionally   
   >     ⊢ ¬∀n p(n)   
   >   
   > This is called ω-inconsistency.  (Any inconsistent theory will also be   
   > ω-inconsistent, but it's possible for a consistent theory to be ω-   
   > inconsistent, so they are not equivalent concepts.)   
   >   
      
   ∀n ∈ ℕ (n < 4 → p(n))   
      
   >       
   >   
   > So ω-incompleteness is saying our theory lacks some Theorems we would   
   > like [regarding universal quantification for certain properties p],   
   > while ω-inconsistency is much worse, actually saying that some n exists   
   > such that ¬p(n) holds, despite p(1), p(2),... all holding.  [Clearly   
   > such an n can't be a (standard) natural number.]   
   >   
   > I'm not really up on all this, but seem to (randomly!) recall:   
   > 1.  ω-incompleteness is fairly common (not too worrying)   
   > 2.  Godel's proof of GIT needed the assumption that his base system P was   
   >      /ω-consistent/, which is a stronger condition than just consistency.   
   > 3.  A few years after GIT was published, someone published an improved   
   > proof,   
   >      along the same lines but "tweaked" so it required only that P is /   
   > consistent/,   
   >      rather than ω-consistent.  (So nowadays when people discuss GIT   
   > they typically   
   >      don't even mention ω-consistency.)   
   >   
   >   
   >  > Well actually .... if you wrote a   
   >  > proof, in the little system, for each n in N and joined them with and   
   > "&" operator you would prove   
   >  > the quantified statement albeit with an infinity proof.   
   >   
   > Not sure if you're joining the proofs or the statements p(n) with an &   
   > operator.  Well, you can't join proofs with '&', so you must mean   
   > allowing infinitely long sentences like   
   >   
   >    p(0) & p(1) & p(2) &...   
   >   
   > Or you could concatenating the proofs to make an infinitely long proof,   
   > or both, I get where you're going.   
   >   
   > Yeah, those sorts of ideas have all been studied, but it's not as simple   
   > as you make out.   
   >   
   > OK, so we string together an infinite number of proofs for p(1), p(2),   
   > p(3)... and/or we have an infinitely long conjunction as above, but how   
   > would that (of itself) actually prove ∀n p(n) ?   
   >   
   > Just from what's been said, it /wouldn't/, because we can build models   
   > where all your infinitary stuff above happens, AND ∀n p(n) is actually   
   > still false, and we wouldn't want to be proving false statements.   
   > We're missing something /in our logical calculus/ that encapsulates the   
   > idea that our domain is /only/ n=0,1,2,3... (i.e. the natural numbers)   
   > So to actually prove ∀n p(n), as well as /allowing/ infinitary proofs in   
   > some fashion, we'd also need to add /further/ infinitary logical   
   > deduction rules somehow reflecting that our base domain is /only/ N.   
   > (Just /saying/ "N is our preferred model" doesn't change things.)   
   >   
   >   
   >  > In a little larger system, perhaps with an   
   >  > induction axiom, or a meta system it might be trivial to prove the   
   > whole thing with a   
   >  > finite effort.   
   >   
   > Yes that's common.  For example there are common systems where for all   
   > (natural numbers) m,n we can prove   
   >   
   >     ⊢  +  =  +    
   >   
   > typically using induction over m,n (in the meta-system).  [ means the   
   > numeral for n in our system, i.e. <3> is typically SSS0, and so on].   
   > However it can fail to be the case for our sytem that   
   >   
   >     ⊢ ∀m∀n m + n = n + m   
   >   
   > Mike.   
   >   
      
      
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