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|    sci.physics    |    Physical laws, properties, etc.    |    178,769 messages    |
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|    Message 178,622 of 178,769    |
|    Thomas 'PointedEars' Lahn to Kuan Peng    |
|    Re: A Derivation of Faraday's law from C    |
|    21 Jan 26 08:28:57    |
      From: PointedEars@web.de              Kuan Peng wrote:       > Le 20/01/2026 à 17:11, Thomas 'PointedEars' Lahn a écrit :       >> There is; it is called Lenz's Law:       >       > If at the beginning the current in A is constant,              What exactly do you mean by that?              > do you think that there is a current in the coil B?              Unless coil B is in the vicinity of a voltage source, or if the external       electric field is not constant, then there should not be:               ∇ × E = −∂B∕∂t,        ∇ × B = μ₀ J + (1/c²) ∂E∕∂t              and               J = σ E,              where σ is conductivity, and               I = ∬ dA ⋅ J,              so there is a current when the magnetic field changes, or there is a       non-zero electric field (that is produced by the voltage source).              But one has to be careful here. A *measured* current is rarely exactly 0       all the time; for example, there is interference from external source, and       the phenomenon and practical problem of a /Kriechstrom/ (literally: crawling       current). Experimental evidence that a measured current is not zero is       therefore insufficient to confirm the claim that Faraday's law of induction       would be wrong or needed refinement. Much of it depends on your       experimental setup.              --       PointedEars              Twitter: @PointedEars2       Please do not cc me. / Bitte keine Kopien per E-Mail.              --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05        * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)    |
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