XPost: soc.culture.china, soc.culture.europe, soc.culture.usa   
   XPost: soc.culture.latin-america, soc.culture.iraq, soc.culture.pakistan   
   XPost: rec.sport.tennis   
   From: acoustic@panix.com   
      
   There is a string of Maidan-look-alike protests in Ukraine's east and   
   southeast going on right now that are finally drawing widespread   
   attention.  Yet, the western media have insisted that only a small   
   number of people from the local populations are involved.   
      
   Why, if protests in eastern Ukraine involve only small numbers of the   
   local populations, is the central government in Kiev unwilling to   
   allow a referendum on federalization, independence, union with Russia,   
   or whatever to be held?   
      
   I know the same question can be raised about the status of Tibet in   
   China.  Why, for example, does China not allow a referendum for Tibet   
   on the question of independence or self-rule?  In that case, it is   
   clear that there is a tacit assumption that the Chinese government   
   cannot predict the influence of the Dalai Lama on the Tibetan Chinese   
   and is therefore afraid of the consequences of such a vote.   
      
   In Ukraine's case, neither the Kiev government nor the western media   
   have admitted such a scenario.  So, why is the Kiev government afraid   
   to give the people a chance to express their will?   
      
   lo yeeOn   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)