From: myths@ic24.net   
      
   On Fri, 3 May 2019 01:12:07 +0100, Richard Smith   
    wrote:   
      
   >[...]   
   >>   
   >> So, it was valid, but instant divorce was possible. Interesting.   
   >   
   >Perhaps not instant: either the bride or groom still needed to apply to   
   >the courts for a decree of nullity, but to get this, all they needed to   
   >do was demonstrate one party was under age which would normally be   
   >beyond dispute (and, of course, they had to pay various legal fees).   
      
      
   I vaguely remember reading somewhere that clear (even if implicit)   
   indication of consent by a party to the marriage after (s)he reached   
   what was the appropriate age for consent meant that the marriage was   
   was then no longer voidable on behalf of that party.   
      
   --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05   
    * Origin: you cannot sedate... all the things you hate (1:229/2)